I have a database of 5 tables. Some contain the same columns as others, does tying these tables to another table which has the primary keys of other tables meet 3rd normalisation. (This is outlined more clearly below)
I have a table of customers, with their names and phone numbers as well as requirements they want in their car etc. The primary key is CustomerID.
I then match a customer with a car which matches their requirements. I have a table with Match ID (Primary key) and CustomerID and CarID (As foreign keys.)
By doing this, can I then make a table off Match ID which can be given to the receptionist so that they can contact the customer. In this table I would need to include the customer name and phone number. However, does this break 3rd normal form as Phone number is now both in CustomerID and the new table.
The last table you describe doesn't necessarily break any normal form, because the customer's phone number can change in the future. You may want to preserve the phone number in another table so there is a record of what phone number was contacted on that date.
Compare with a database of products. The product table has prices. Then you record customer purchases, with a copy of the price they paid on the date they made the purchase. That's okay because you need a record of what was paid in each case. A customer may buy the product during a sale, or they got a senior discount, or a bulk discount, or the price may change a month after they bought the item, etc. The price they paid is not necessarily the current price recorded in the products table. Therefore it does not violate 3NF.